THE HOLY SPIRIT AND PAUL’S LAST TRIP TO JERUSALEM AND IMPRISONMENT IN ROME
THE “scholars” never like to have the tables turned on them but I learned over 40 years ago that so-called “Greek rules” are easily manipulated if one has a mind to do so. Believe me, the Greek spouters are regular as clockwork in doing just that.
HERE are some “insider tips” when you have a blustering doctor poo-pooing your lack of education. Keep in mind that Grandma who reads English and has lived in her KJB all her life knows more of God than any pipsqueak Hebrew or Greek scholar. And you can take that to the bank!
LET’S list what the “Greek experts” never talk about when they want the rules to bend their way.
1. NO RV, ASV, NASV, NIV, NWT, OR GREEK etc., etc. user who corrects the KJB by it, believes he has the infallible, inerrant, perfect words of God IN HIS HAND, in ONE BOOK. They are “Ever learning, and never able to come to the knowledge of the truth.” (2 Timothy 3:7 KJB). They are not convinced that what they have fits this description:
“6 The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
7 Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever.” (Psalms 12:6, 7 KJB)
(The ignorant critics even try to remove the contextual rule in Psalm 12 to refer to people—rather than GOD’S WORDS)
2. KJB CONTEXT ALWAYS TRUMPS THE GREEK RULES. There it is. When push comes to shove, that is the high card in the “Greek says this or that” or “The NIV has the best reading” game. God put that infallible feature in the KJB and it is also true in any language. If you want to understand what a Yanomami (S.A. Amazon jungle), Zhuang (SW China Minority), Spaniard or German says, you must know THE CONTEXT: HOW THE WORDS HE SPEAKS ARE USED WITHIN THAT CONTEXT OF CONVERSATION. And, If you have ever played Rook, Hearts, Canasta, or Poker (Chinese or American), you know what “trump” means.
3. EVERY GREEK GRAMMAR, LEXICON and CONCORDANCE when it differs from the CONTEXT of usage in the KJB, defines its words by a form of Classical Greek. Classical Greek is man’s language with senses, usage, and meanings developed over hundreds of years. Think of what the centuries of debauchery and “man-boy love” did to that Greek language! The Greek language of the NT has been “purified” by God and is BIBLICAL GREEK, a form of Greek NOT spoken by anyone on the street from B.C. Socrates to a Greek taxi driver on Cyprus in 2013.
4. SURE, there are similarities between SPOKEN GREEK and GREEK IN THE BIBLE during the first century. But there are many MAJOR differences. For example, LOVE. All Greeks had “eros” love (erotic sexual implications) and “phileo” love (family and friends, country, etc.) BUT NONE OF THEM KNEW ANYTHING OF THE WORD “agape”. “Agape” is a Greek word for love FOUND ONLY IN THE NT. GOD PUT IT IN THE NT BECAUSE IT REFERS TO SPECIAL DEFINITIONS OF LOVE.
5. AND–here is a kicker–WHEN A PERSON TALKS OF “LOVE” IN ENGLISH (without knowing the ENGLISH CONTEXT of the KJB) he knows nothing of what it means and how God uses it.
I KNOW that from experience because before I was saved, I sang about “Love” in scores of bars. “Oh baby, love me tonight” and “Loves gonna live here again” “Love me tender” “Love me darlin’ just tonight”. We just “love” NY, fried chicken, a fireplace, girls, wife, cat, dog, and many more. I KNEW NOTHING OF THE LOVE IN THE BIBLE AND MY CORRUPT ENGLISH LESSONS HAD CORRUPTED ME.
I KNOW THE DIFFERENCE FROM THE BIBLE NOW. Notice I said “THE BIBLE.” Once I learned a little Greek and was able to compare the usages of love and agape in the KJB, I KNEW THAT EVERY BIBLE THAT MISTRANSLATES AGAPE IN 1CORINTHIANS 13 AS “LOVE” IS CORRUPT AND CAN NOT BE THE PURE WORD OF GOD. The context and usage of “agape” in the KJB defines the meaning. “Agape” as defined by context and usage in the KJB is CHARITY: the bond of perfectness between believers who are obeying God. Put “love” in 1 Corinthians 13 and “love” in John 3:16 because “agape” is the Greek word in both places, and you have no real Bible understanding of either passage–you just think you do. ANY NIV OR OTHER BIBLE USER DOES NOT UNDERSTAND THE VARIUS MEANINGS OF AGAPE. YOU ONLY GET IT IN THE ENGLISH KJB.
ALL languages man speaks and uses are corrupted simply because “all have sinned” (Romans3:23) and even saved people can not keep “pure words” due to the presence of the “old man” in every believer. Non-biblical carnal English usage for the past 400 yrs has even corrupted the meaning of love and charity.
This fact is the reason GOD INSPIRED THE BIBLE WRITERS TO WRITE :
“For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.” (2 Peter 1:21 KJB)
GOD PROMISES HIS WORDS SHALL NOT PASS AWAY:
“Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.” (Matthew 24:35 KJB)
Now, if His WORDS shall not pass away, WHERE ARE THESE WORDS NOW? The educated idiot says, “Uhhhh….in heaven.” Why you gnat brained son of doubting Thomas—have you never read the hundreds of times in the Bible where God speaks to man and tells him to do exactly, TO THE VERY WORDS what He says? God did not write the Bible for Himself, give it to man, then take it away, tucked forever on some iCloud shelf.
RULE: ANY MAN WHO DOES NOT BELIEVE THE KJB IS THE INFALLIBLE WORD OF GOD, DOES NOT BELIEVE WHATEVER BOOK HE CAN HOLD IN HIS HAND IS THE PURE WORD OF GOD.
6. OTHER specific words such as “blood” “church” “baptism” “testament” “covenant” “angel” “cherubim” plus a hundred or so more, must not be defined by Classical Greek usage. That is by no means the only danger; grammar, syntax, and the very construction and association of all Biblical words with each other are mutilated by those who use “Greek” to correct the KJB or proudly point to the “clarity” of their “new” translation. Another example: Every Greek grammar and lexicon allows Homer and other heathen Greeks to define the Greek word “baptizo” (baptize) instead of allowing the context of God’s word to define it. Every time you use a Bible “study help” such as Strong’s or Young’s Concordance you are using a source that depends upon heathen definitions more often than God’s definitions from the Bible itself. NT Greek is Biblical Greek and like the English King James Bible, it is a language never entirely spoken by anyone, anywhere. The Biblical English in the KING JAMES BIBLE WAS NOT SPOKEN BY ANYONE FROM 1200-1611 A.D. God purified the Bible words by usage and context in the King James Bible itself. (For a more thorough study, see “God’s Dictionary” available in the Right Division bookstore.
7. GREEK manuscripts are in two classes: “UNCIAL” (all capital letters) or “cursive” ( a running type of all small letters). Therefore, there are no “capitalized words” such as “Lord Jesus Christ” or “Spirit” or “Holy Spirit” in any Greek manuscript. All ideas of capitalization are absent. English capitalizes proper pronouns, Greek does not. Therefore, when you read “spirit” or “Spirit” you are reading not a translation but an interpretation or version, only accurate in your King James Bible which is based on the context and usage of “Spirit” or “spirit”.
http://right-division.com/bookstore/products/gods-dictionary-how-worldy-wisdom-supplanted-bible-term-definitions-ebook/
PART TWO WILL APPLY THESE PRINCIPLES AND OTHERS TO THE CONTEXT AND USAGE OF THE WORD “SPIRIT” IN PAUL’S TRIPS TO JERUSALEM AND ROME.
